Sep 12, 2022·edited Sep 12, 2022Liked by Robyn Chuter
Addition to my previous comment:
This meta analysis from July 2022 (Title: The Vaccine Efficacy Against the SARS-CoV-2 Omicron: A Systemic Review and Meta-Analysis) says:
"The pooling of 13 studies showed that no significant difference between fully vaccinated population and unvaccinated population (OR = 0.77, 95% CI: 0.32–1.83). After excluding the one study (24) looking at the long term effectiveness of the vaccinated population, the pooling of the remaining 12 studies showed that full vaccination significantly lowered the risk (OR = 0.62, 95% CI: 0.56–0.69) of infection against the Omicron variant..."
So they found that there was a lower risk for 6 months but when they included a study which investigated the effect for more than 6 months, the risk reduction became non-significant. Then I looked ar this study that they excluded. It was published in the BMJ and says:
"1 951 866 and 3 219 349 eligible adults received two doses of BNT162b2 and ChAdOx1, respectively, and 2 422 980 remained unvaccinated. Waning of vaccine effectiveness was estimated to be similar across outcomes and vaccine brands. In the ≥65 years subgroup, ratios of adjusted hazard ratios for covid-19 related hospital admission, covid-19 related death, and positive SARS-CoV-2 test ranged from 1.19 (95% confidence interval 1.14 to 1.24)to 1.34 (1.09 to 1.64) per four weeks. Despite waning vaccine effectiveness, rates of covid-19 related hospital admission and death were substantially lower among vaccinated than unvaccinated adults up to 26 weeks after the second dose, with estimated vaccine effectiveness ≥80% for BNT162b2, and ≥75% for ChAdOx1. By weeks 23-26, rates of positive SARS-CoV-2 test in vaccinated people were similar to or higher than in unvaccinated people (adjusted hazard ratios up to 1.72 (1.11 to 2.68) for BNT162b2 and 1.86 (1.79 to 1.93) for ChAdOx1)."
So this study shows that about 6 months after vaccination, there was a negative efficacy. Vaccinated people had a higher risk of infection! This is an extremely alarming signal in my opinion. It shows the vaccines harm our immune systems. And I totally wonder why they want to administer booster vaccines although they see what these vaccines do to the immune system... But this is another topic.
But again, this study also claims that there was a lower risk of more severe outcomes. So how is this possible? It contradicts so many other analyses. Please let me know what you would respond if someone would present these studies to you.
This study also included non-covid-related deaths. They write:
"We observed 8463, 9135, and 3031 non-covid-19 related deaths in BNT162b2 recipients, ChAdOx1 recipients, and unvaccinated people, respectively (supplementary table S5). Across subgroups, estimated adjusted hazard ratios during weeks three to six ranged from 0.29 (0.24 to 0.35) to 0.47 (0.34 to 0.64) for BNT162b2 and from 0.29 (0.20 to 0.44) to 0.36 (0.30 to 0.44) for ChAdOx1 (fig 2; supplementary table S7). By weeks 23-26, these ranged from 0.55 (0.40 to 0.76) to 0.58 (0.48 to 0.69) for BNT162b2 and from 0.64 (0.43 to 0.95) to 0.74 (0.61 to 0.90) for ChAdOx1. Rates of waning were lower than for the other outcomes (maximum ratio of adjusted hazard ratios 1.19 (1.09 to 1.31); supplementary table S8)."
So in other words, they claim the vaccinated people had a much lower overall mortality rate... The RCT´s showed zero mortality benefit or even a slightly higher risk of all cause death (24% higher).
So why does this study here show that vaccinated people had lower mortality? This absolutely contradicts all other analyses I have seen. There are so many analyses showing a clear association between vaccination and excess mortality....
For example, an analysis by Prof. Kuhbander (Germany) shows:
"The figure shows that the strong increase in mortality in April 2021 and the further development of the excess deaths covaries with the strong increase of the number of vaccinations. Furthermore, the peaks of the excess mortality nearly coincides with the peaks of the vaccination campaign. Such a strong covariation suggests that the increase in excess mortality might be related to the increase in vaccinations. Since covariation does not neccessarily imply causation, further studies are needed to investigate this assumption. However, a further hint that vaccinations may indeed have increased mortality in the negative is the fact that the age group [0, 29] has a peak in the excess mortality in June 2021 instead of April 2021, see the table and the graph in the
supplement, Section 8.5. Data of the Robert Koch Institute show that for this age group the peak in the vaccination campaign is in fact only in June 2021."
So this dramatically contradicts the results of the previously mentioned study.... But how is this possible? Why did the previous study find that vaccination was associated with much lower overall deaths while this analysis shows that vaccination seems to increase overall mortality in the population.... ?!
Sep 12, 2022·edited Sep 12, 2022Liked by Robyn Chuter
Hi Robyn! Thank you for your incredible work! Your contributions are amazing and so important.
I have a question and would like to know your opinion about this... There are meta analyses and systematic reviews which seem to indicate that the vaccines were also "very effective" for Omicron.
For example, this new study with the title "A comprehensive analysis of the efficacy and effectiveness of COVID-19 vaccines" from August says:
"We updated the efficacy analysis of COVID-19 vaccines based on the RCT studies before the pandemic of Omicron variant infection (Supplementary Table 2). Compared with the placebo group, the overall efficacy was 66.4% (95% CI: 51.9%, 76.5%) in preventing symptomatic infection and 47.6% (95% CI: 31.4%, 60.0%) in preventing asymptomatic infections for all COVID-19 vaccines analyzed (Table 1 and Figures 2, 5), respectively. The efficacy to prevent COVID-19 and severe COVID-19 was 79.7% (95% CI: 31.4%, 60.0%) and 93.6% (95% CI: 82.9%, 97.6%), respectively (Table 1 and Figures 3, 4), indicating that the current COVID-19 vaccines were much better in preventing severe and symptomatic COVID-19 than asymptomatic infection. There was one study to analyze the mRNA-1273 vaccine to prevent COVID-19-related death, and the efficacy was 100%"
And from the abstract:
"The effectiveness of the booster immunization with RNA-based vaccine BNT162b2 or mRNA-1273 was over 75% against severe COVID-19 more than 17 weeks after booster immunization whereas the heterogenous booster immunization showed better effectiveness than homologous booster immunization. In summary, the current COVID-19 vaccines could effectively protect COVID-19 caused by Delta and Omicron variants but was less effective against Omicron variant infection. One-dose booster immunization could enhance protection capability, and two-dose booster immunization could provide additional protection against severe COVID-19."
So this contradicts all the other real-life evidence and other analyses from independent researchers that I have seen. I would like to mention that I absolutely do not support these vaccines because of their dramatic dangers. AND even if they reduce covid-specific risks, that does not matter at all, because finally only the all cause morbidity and all cause mortality matter. And we have much evidence that the vaccines killed and injured HUGE amounts of people. They probably "kill more than they (might) save"... Not to mention that early treatment protocols have an efficacy of more than 90% and could save many more lives than these vaccines.
But I would still like to understand why these peer reviewed studies seem to show that the vaccines had such a high effectiveness for covid (omicron). Even for infection, they reduced the risk by 50?! How?! Many other analyses seem to show that vaccinated people have a higher risk of an omicron infection...(negative effectiveness).. so why these results here? And I also know of analyses which show that the higher the vaccination rate, the higher the hospitalization rate for example... (from Gato Malo Substack).
The covid vaccines are associated with more cases, more covid deaths in so many studies. There were more covid deaths in 2021 than in 2020.... although most of the vulnerable peope hav been vaccinated...
Dr. McCullough said there were 250.000 covid deaths pre vaccination and 750.000 covid deaths since vaccination.... so how is it possible that these studies show such a high efficacy? I am aware of the problem that they do not count people as vaccinated within the first 14 days of vaccination... But I do not know if this alone could have this big effect..
What would you respond if someone would present these studies to you?
Addition to my previous comment:
This meta analysis from July 2022 (Title: The Vaccine Efficacy Against the SARS-CoV-2 Omicron: A Systemic Review and Meta-Analysis) says:
"The pooling of 13 studies showed that no significant difference between fully vaccinated population and unvaccinated population (OR = 0.77, 95% CI: 0.32–1.83). After excluding the one study (24) looking at the long term effectiveness of the vaccinated population, the pooling of the remaining 12 studies showed that full vaccination significantly lowered the risk (OR = 0.62, 95% CI: 0.56–0.69) of infection against the Omicron variant..."
So they found that there was a lower risk for 6 months but when they included a study which investigated the effect for more than 6 months, the risk reduction became non-significant. Then I looked ar this study that they excluded. It was published in the BMJ and says:
"1 951 866 and 3 219 349 eligible adults received two doses of BNT162b2 and ChAdOx1, respectively, and 2 422 980 remained unvaccinated. Waning of vaccine effectiveness was estimated to be similar across outcomes and vaccine brands. In the ≥65 years subgroup, ratios of adjusted hazard ratios for covid-19 related hospital admission, covid-19 related death, and positive SARS-CoV-2 test ranged from 1.19 (95% confidence interval 1.14 to 1.24)to 1.34 (1.09 to 1.64) per four weeks. Despite waning vaccine effectiveness, rates of covid-19 related hospital admission and death were substantially lower among vaccinated than unvaccinated adults up to 26 weeks after the second dose, with estimated vaccine effectiveness ≥80% for BNT162b2, and ≥75% for ChAdOx1. By weeks 23-26, rates of positive SARS-CoV-2 test in vaccinated people were similar to or higher than in unvaccinated people (adjusted hazard ratios up to 1.72 (1.11 to 2.68) for BNT162b2 and 1.86 (1.79 to 1.93) for ChAdOx1)."
So this study shows that about 6 months after vaccination, there was a negative efficacy. Vaccinated people had a higher risk of infection! This is an extremely alarming signal in my opinion. It shows the vaccines harm our immune systems. And I totally wonder why they want to administer booster vaccines although they see what these vaccines do to the immune system... But this is another topic.
But again, this study also claims that there was a lower risk of more severe outcomes. So how is this possible? It contradicts so many other analyses. Please let me know what you would respond if someone would present these studies to you.
This study also included non-covid-related deaths. They write:
"We observed 8463, 9135, and 3031 non-covid-19 related deaths in BNT162b2 recipients, ChAdOx1 recipients, and unvaccinated people, respectively (supplementary table S5). Across subgroups, estimated adjusted hazard ratios during weeks three to six ranged from 0.29 (0.24 to 0.35) to 0.47 (0.34 to 0.64) for BNT162b2 and from 0.29 (0.20 to 0.44) to 0.36 (0.30 to 0.44) for ChAdOx1 (fig 2; supplementary table S7). By weeks 23-26, these ranged from 0.55 (0.40 to 0.76) to 0.58 (0.48 to 0.69) for BNT162b2 and from 0.64 (0.43 to 0.95) to 0.74 (0.61 to 0.90) for ChAdOx1. Rates of waning were lower than for the other outcomes (maximum ratio of adjusted hazard ratios 1.19 (1.09 to 1.31); supplementary table S8)."
So in other words, they claim the vaccinated people had a much lower overall mortality rate... The RCT´s showed zero mortality benefit or even a slightly higher risk of all cause death (24% higher).
So why does this study here show that vaccinated people had lower mortality? This absolutely contradicts all other analyses I have seen. There are so many analyses showing a clear association between vaccination and excess mortality....
For example, an analysis by Prof. Kuhbander (Germany) shows:
"The figure shows that the strong increase in mortality in April 2021 and the further development of the excess deaths covaries with the strong increase of the number of vaccinations. Furthermore, the peaks of the excess mortality nearly coincides with the peaks of the vaccination campaign. Such a strong covariation suggests that the increase in excess mortality might be related to the increase in vaccinations. Since covariation does not neccessarily imply causation, further studies are needed to investigate this assumption. However, a further hint that vaccinations may indeed have increased mortality in the negative is the fact that the age group [0, 29] has a peak in the excess mortality in June 2021 instead of April 2021, see the table and the graph in the
supplement, Section 8.5. Data of the Robert Koch Institute show that for this age group the peak in the vaccination campaign is in fact only in June 2021."
So this dramatically contradicts the results of the previously mentioned study.... But how is this possible? Why did the previous study find that vaccination was associated with much lower overall deaths while this analysis shows that vaccination seems to increase overall mortality in the population.... ?!
What do you think?
Hi Robyn! Thank you for your incredible work! Your contributions are amazing and so important.
I have a question and would like to know your opinion about this... There are meta analyses and systematic reviews which seem to indicate that the vaccines were also "very effective" for Omicron.
For example, this new study with the title "A comprehensive analysis of the efficacy and effectiveness of COVID-19 vaccines" from August says:
"We updated the efficacy analysis of COVID-19 vaccines based on the RCT studies before the pandemic of Omicron variant infection (Supplementary Table 2). Compared with the placebo group, the overall efficacy was 66.4% (95% CI: 51.9%, 76.5%) in preventing symptomatic infection and 47.6% (95% CI: 31.4%, 60.0%) in preventing asymptomatic infections for all COVID-19 vaccines analyzed (Table 1 and Figures 2, 5), respectively. The efficacy to prevent COVID-19 and severe COVID-19 was 79.7% (95% CI: 31.4%, 60.0%) and 93.6% (95% CI: 82.9%, 97.6%), respectively (Table 1 and Figures 3, 4), indicating that the current COVID-19 vaccines were much better in preventing severe and symptomatic COVID-19 than asymptomatic infection. There was one study to analyze the mRNA-1273 vaccine to prevent COVID-19-related death, and the efficacy was 100%"
And from the abstract:
"The effectiveness of the booster immunization with RNA-based vaccine BNT162b2 or mRNA-1273 was over 75% against severe COVID-19 more than 17 weeks after booster immunization whereas the heterogenous booster immunization showed better effectiveness than homologous booster immunization. In summary, the current COVID-19 vaccines could effectively protect COVID-19 caused by Delta and Omicron variants but was less effective against Omicron variant infection. One-dose booster immunization could enhance protection capability, and two-dose booster immunization could provide additional protection against severe COVID-19."
So this contradicts all the other real-life evidence and other analyses from independent researchers that I have seen. I would like to mention that I absolutely do not support these vaccines because of their dramatic dangers. AND even if they reduce covid-specific risks, that does not matter at all, because finally only the all cause morbidity and all cause mortality matter. And we have much evidence that the vaccines killed and injured HUGE amounts of people. They probably "kill more than they (might) save"... Not to mention that early treatment protocols have an efficacy of more than 90% and could save many more lives than these vaccines.
But I would still like to understand why these peer reviewed studies seem to show that the vaccines had such a high effectiveness for covid (omicron). Even for infection, they reduced the risk by 50?! How?! Many other analyses seem to show that vaccinated people have a higher risk of an omicron infection...(negative effectiveness).. so why these results here? And I also know of analyses which show that the higher the vaccination rate, the higher the hospitalization rate for example... (from Gato Malo Substack).
The covid vaccines are associated with more cases, more covid deaths in so many studies. There were more covid deaths in 2021 than in 2020.... although most of the vulnerable peope hav been vaccinated...
Dr. McCullough said there were 250.000 covid deaths pre vaccination and 750.000 covid deaths since vaccination.... so how is it possible that these studies show such a high efficacy? I am aware of the problem that they do not count people as vaccinated within the first 14 days of vaccination... But I do not know if this alone could have this big effect..
What would you respond if someone would present these studies to you?